CCNA 200-301 Exam Dumps Free | Full Questions & Answers – Study Guide [valid & updated]

Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?

A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

B. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255

C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

D. No further routing configuration is required

Correct Answer: D
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A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

A. port-to-multipoint

B. broadcast

C. point-to-point

D. non-broadcast

Correct Answer: C
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Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

A. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240

B. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252

C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

D. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252

E. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240

F. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: C
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193. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:

City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three)

A. FastEthernet0 /0

B. FastEthernet0 /1

C. Serial0/0

D. Serial0/1.102

E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104

Correct Answer: B C D
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A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly

B. The OSPF area is not configured properly

C. The cost on R1 should be set higher

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly

E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network

F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match

Correct Answer: D
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Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two)

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1

B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3

C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established

D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3

E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance

F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas

Correct Answer: D F
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Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.154.154.1

C. 172.16.5.1

D. 192.168.5.3

Correct Answer: C
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Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers

B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected

C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C

D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Correct Answer: A
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Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?

 

A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved

B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved

C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool

D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool

E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved

Correct Answer: A
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Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

A. This design will function as intended

B. Spanning-tree will need to be used

C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme

D. The connection between switches should be a trunk

E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol

Correct Answer: C
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What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

A. moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B. provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point

D. combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Correct Answer: C
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A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

A. Device(Config)#lldp run

B. Device(Config)#cdp run

C. Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

D. Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

Correct Answer: A
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202. What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

A. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail

D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

Correct Answer: C E
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203. What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

A. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

B. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

C. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

Correct Answer: A
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204. Which function docs an SNMP agent perform?

A. it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B. it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

C. it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

D. it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

Correct Answer: A
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205. R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

A. route with the lowest cost

B. route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C. route with the shortest prefix length

D. route with the lowest administrative distance

Correct Answer: D
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206. What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops

B. It provides variable latency

C. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports

D. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth

Correct Answer: A
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74

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

A. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

B. enable SLAAC on an interface

C. disable the EUI-64 bit process

D. explicitly assign a link-local address

Correct Answer: B
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Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

A. longest prefix

B. metric

C. cost

D. administrative distance

Correct Answer: A
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Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing

R1(config)# ip route default-route 192.168.1.1

B. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing

R1(config)# ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

C. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

D. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing

R1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Correct Answer: C
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210. Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

A. TKiP encryption

B. AES encryption

C. scrambled encryption key

D. SAE encryption

Correct Answer: D
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Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1.The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

A. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

B. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1

C. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical

D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

Correct Answer: B
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212. Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

A. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address

B. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost

D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address

Correct Answer: D
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213. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two)

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Correct Answer: A C
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214. What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

A. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

Correct Answer: C
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Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

A. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address

B. It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address

C. It load-balances traffic between all three routes

D. It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

Correct Answer: A
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216. What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

A. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs

B. It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode

C. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment

D. It is designed primarily to provide network assurance

Correct Answer: A
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While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

A. The packets fail to match any permit statement

B. A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

C. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

D. The ACL is empty

E. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

Correct Answer: B C
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How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

A. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

Correct Answer: A
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219. How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

A. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

Correct Answer: B
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What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode? 

A. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

B. FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC

C. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured

D. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

Correct Answer: A
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221. Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D. enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Correct Answer: A
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222. What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

A. A TCP connection has been torn down

B. An ICMP connection has been built

C. An interface line has changed status

D. A certificate has expired

Correct Answer: C
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Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using

passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

A. SW1

B. SW2

C. SW3

D. SW4

Correct Answer: C
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224. What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two)

A. The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic

B. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

C. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server

D. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network

E. It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

Correct Answer: B C
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225. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two)

A. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

B. This is a root bridge

C. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

D. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

E. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

Correct Answer: C E
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