133. Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two)
A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer
B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer
D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach[br] [br] [br] [br]
You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network – one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes?
A. Change the maximum paths to 2
B. Change the configuration so they both have the same feasible distance
C. Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072 to 2
D. Change the IP addresses so both paths have the same source IP address[br] [br] [br] [br]
135. Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols?
E. RIP[br] [br] [br] [br]
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
D. 192.168.15.5[br] [br] [br] [br]
137. Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two)
E. 4096[br] [br] [br] [br]
Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network? (Choose three)
F. 192.168.0.0[br] [br] [br] [br]
139. Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two)
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication
B. to implement NAT
C. to connect applications
D. to conserve global address space
E. to manage routing overhead[br] [br] [br] [br]
140. Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
B. 6to4 tunneling
D. dual-stack[br] [br] [br] [br]
141. Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose Three)
A. to speed up convergence
B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
D. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
F. to reduce the complexity of router configuration[br] [br] [br] [br]
142. Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)
A. It supports VLSM
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network
D. It increases routing overhead on the network
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2[br] [br] [br] [br]
Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment?
B. show ipv6 eigrp topology
C. show ipv6 eigrp traffic
D. show ipv6 eigrp events[br] [br] [br] [br]
144. Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
A. start of frame delimiter
B. Type field
D. Data field[br] [br] [br] [br]
Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
A. standby 10 preempt
B. standby 10 version 1
C. standby 10 priority 150
D. standby 10 version 2[br] [br] [br] [br]
Which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. no additional config is required
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250[br] [br] [br] [br]
You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?
A. ip default-gateway
B. ip route
C. ip default-network
D. ip address dhcp
E. ip address dynamic[br] [br] [br] [br]
A. The designated port
B. The backup port
C. The alternate port
D. The root port[br] [br] [br] [br]
Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)
A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode on
B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active
C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode auto
D. interface port-channel 10 switchport
switchport mode trunk
E. interface port-channel 10 no switchport
ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0[br] [br] [br] [br]
150. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only[br] [br] [br] [br]
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to arouter, the DHCP clients behind the device connot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem?
A. Configure the dns server on the same subnet as the clients
B. Activate the dhcp pool
C. Correct the subnet mask
D. configure the default gateway[br] [br] [br] [br]
Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1
B. The router will return the packet to its source
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2
D. The router will drop the packet[br] [br] [br] [br]
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
D. local[br] [br] [br] [br]
154. Refer to exhibit. What Administrative distance has route to 192.168.10.1 ?
D. 120[br] [br] [br] [br]
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?
B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
C. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
D. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2[br] [br] [br] [br]
156. Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter?
D. NTP[br] [br] [br] [br]
157. Which effete does the aaa new-model configuration command have?
A. It enables AAA services on the device
B. It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA
C. It associates a RADIUS server to an group
D. It configures a local user on the device[br] [br] [br] [br]
158. Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?
B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100
C. It drops the traffic
D. It sends the traffic to VLAN 1[br] [br] [br] [br]
159. Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two)
A. channel-group 10 mode on
B. channel-group 10 mode auto
C. channel-group 10 mode passive
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
E. channel-group 10 mode active[br] [br] [br] [br]
160. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?
D. 11111101[br] [br] [br] [br]
161. Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. They determine the optimal within an autonomous system
B. They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems
C. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol
D. Most modern networking supports both EGP and BGP for external routing
E. Most modern network routers support both EGP and EIGRP for external routing[br] [br] [br] [br]
162. What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff[br] [br] [br] [br]
You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?
B. Specify a loopback address
C. Reboot the router
D. Save the router configuration[br] [br] [br] [br]
164. Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two)
A. All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name
B. All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation
C. All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name
D. The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain
E. All switches must use the same VTP version[br] [br] [br] [br]
Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two)
A. the native VLAN
B. the trunking protocol
C. the VTP domain
D. the spanning-tree priority
E. the spanning tree protocol[br] [br] [br] [br]
166. Refer to the exhibit. On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1?
D. EIGRP[br] [br] [br] [br]
167. Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment?
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 5
C. VLAN 10
D. VLAN 20[br] [br] [br] [br]
Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two)
A. mismatched autonomous system numbers
B. an ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 184.108.40.206
C. mismatched process IDs
D. mismatched hello timers and dead timers
E. use of the same router ID on both devices[br] [br] [br] [br]
169. Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two)
A. The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems
B. Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device
C. They can be created dynamically after the network statement is configured
D. The two devices must reside in the same autonomous system
E. The two devices must have matching timer settings[br] [br] [br] [br]
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two)
B. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
C. the configured NTP servers
D. whether the clock is synchronized
E. the NTP version number of the peer[br] [br] [br] [br]
Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts?
D. overload[br] [br] [br] [br]
172. Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two)
A. whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface
B. the EIGRP or BGP autonomous system
C. whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured
D. Which neighbor adjacencies are established
E. the length of time that a route has been known[br] [br] [br] [br]
173. Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use?
A. NAT pool
B. dynamic NAT
C. static NAT
D. one-way NAT[br] [br] [br] [br]
A. lldp run
B. lldp enable
C. lldp transmit
D. cdp run
E. cdp enable[br] [br] [br] [br]
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
B. The IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched
C. The autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
D. The router ids on R1 and R2 are mismatched[br] [br] [br] [br]
176. Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?
A. ntp sever
B. ntp peer
C. ntp authenticate
D. ntp master[br] [br] [br] [br]
Which feature or protocol determines whether the QOS on the network is sufficient to support IP services?
C. IP SLA
D. EEM[br] [br] [br] [br]
178. Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled by this configuration?
A. static NAT translation
B. a DHCP pool
C. a dynamic NAT address pool
D. PAT[br] [br] [br] [br]
In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address?
A. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor
B. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor
C. CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor
D. CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor[br] [br] [br] [br]
180. Which two statements about NTP operations are true? (Choose two)
A. NTP uses UDP over IP
B. Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative servers and NTP clients
C. Cisco routers can act only as NTP servers
D. Cisco routers can act only as NTP clients
E. NTP uses TCP over IP[br] [br] [br] [br]
A. lldp timer 5000
B. lldp holdtime 5
C. lldp reinit 5000
D. lldp reinit 5[br] [br] [br] [br]
182. Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number[br] [br] [br] [br]
183. Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
A. It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol
B. It runs on the network layer
C. It can discover information from routers, firewalls, and switches
D. It runs on the physical layer and the data link layer[br] [br] [br] [br]
184. Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
A. The interface number
B. The port priority
C. The VLAN priority
D. The hello time[br] [br] [br] [br]
When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected?
E. Active[br] [br] [br] [br]
186. Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?
A. show hsrp
B. show sessions
C. show interfaces
D. show standby[br] [br] [br] [br]
B. Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
C. Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224
D. Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
E. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
F. Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31[br] [br] [br] [br]
188. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown[br] [br] [br] [br]
189. Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database[br] [br] [br] [br]